Is it legal to have a higher train fare for travel to/from airport when adjacent stops are way cheaper?
I frequently travel to an airport that is connected to its serving city by rail service.
A one way train fare to/from the airport to/from the city is 5 Euros. It’s roughly a 15 minutes train ride.
However, travelling on the same identical train that stops at the airport and boarding/alighting from any of the adjacent stops costs 1.10-1.20 Euros.
- 1 station before the airport’s station to the city: 1.20 Euros
- Airport’s station to the city: 5 Euros
- 1 station after the airport’s station to the city: 1.10 Euros
I find the 5 Euros fare quite good compared to some prices that can be found elsewhere. However, I don’t find this to be ethical and was wondering if there might be any justification for the 450% higher rate (e.g. arguing that the airport’s station infrastructure is what adds to train fare).
If this is indeed Price Discrimination, is it legal?