In the proof of Theorem 2.40 b], it says the proof follows from Theorem 1.19. But in Theorem 1.19, we have $E subset mathbb{R}$, not $mathbb{R}^n$. Why does the proof follow from that ?

Thanks!

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# Folland Theorem 2.40

In the proof of Theorem 2.40 b], it says the proof follows from Theorem 1.19. But in Theorem 1.19, we have $E subset mathbb{R}$, not $mathbb{R}^n$. Why does the proof follow from that ?

Thanks!

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